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by privong·7y ago·view on hn ↗
> That assumes that inertial mass = gravitational mass, which is assumed to be true, not not proven.

The assertion has been tested experimentally. Inertial and gravitational mass are seen to be equivalent within the bounds of experimental accuracy. The wikipedia article on the "Equivalence Principle" has lists of tests for various versions of the principle: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equivalence_principle#Modern_u...

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And the negative mass postulated here? We don't know if it's still equivalent there because we have never tested it.

It would be a lot simpler if inertial mass was negative gravitational mass in this theory.

Then you have repulsive gravity with normal behavior under force.

I see I misunderstood that you were specifically questioning the equivalence for this postulated negative mass. I thought your statement was a more general one.