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by denzil_correa·7y ago·view on hn ↗
You are missing the core point - the income for an average person in India is significantly lower than the US or UK. Therefore, you can not directly compare prices of products across countries regardless of the costs of the product itself.

Some metrics to look at

GNI(PPP) Per Capita in Int$ : India - 6,980 / UK - 42,560 / USA - 60,200 [0]

GDP (nominal) per capita in US$ (World Bank) : India - 1,940 / UK - 39.720 / USA - 59,532 [1]

One of those countries, is not like the other two.

[0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GNI_(PPP)...

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_(nomi...

1 comments
Are you suggesting that someone would sell a product for a lower price than what it costs just because people are poor where he sells it? PPP isn’t magic and you have to understand why some products are cheaper in 3rd world countries and why some products are the same price or even more expensive.

It’s about arbitrage. Just quoting some PPP stat from wikipedia is irrelevent and missing the point.

Why do you think PPP is different in different places? It’s not some magic wand you can just wave around.

> Are you suggesting that someone would sell a product for a lower price than what it costs just because people are poor where he sells it?

Yes and it happens regularly. One example :

Apple Music - USA $9.99 per month, UK £9.99 per month, India 1.74 US$ / 1.32 GBP