As I already stated, the OECD definition of disposable income (https://stats.oecd.org/glossary/detail.asp?ID=46) explicitly accounts for "social transfers in kind", in both directions.
You've already been called out for claiming that the US "doesn't have unemployment benefits"; when challenged your response was more or less "feelz over realz". No matter how often you try to claim that using median income would invalidate OP's point, as I and others keep telling you, it does not. "since healthcare costs should be more or less constant regardless of your income bracket, it would likely be a huge chunk of the median disposable income figure" doesn't even attempt to be coherent. Please stop.