This seems like a lot of fun freud-esque-imaginative conjecture, but did the study not consider the more simple possibility that it failed to control for the population of gay males who do not identify or express as such: i.e. it over-selected for people who are 'out'.
I'd say it's more plausible that gay males who are burdened with more shame (and historic trauma) around their sexuality are less likely to self-identify and self-report as gay and so the remaining 'out' population of gay males are those who are sufficiently comfortable or free of fear to be 'out'. Things contributing to this outness may include: a high level of family support, exposure to validating media, exposure to more educated and enlightened peers and friends, etc. I.e. extremely unsurprising factors in academic achievement.
EDIT: FWIW, reflecting on my own experiences, I _do_ believe there are _some_ performative compensations that occur in response to lack of acceptance or conformity. But there are many axes of difference and non-acceptance that would have to be unpacked there. This study and its commentary seems to do so little service to a highly complex and highly interactional set of factors. It's a wasp's nest of confounding variables that would be almost impossible to navigate scientifically IMO.