For some context, the emperor Ashoka, scion of the Maurya empire, consolidated various smaller republics into an empire that covered most of Afghanistan and North-West Pakistan of today. These areas bordered the regions that were controlled by the Greeks at the time. Ashoka's time was one of consolidation and relative peace, people were more mobile, trade and cultural exchange flourished.
This article [1] sheds a little more light on the story. In fact, the visual image & depictions of the Buddha had significant Greek influence, the first images of the Buddha apparently surfaced outside India centuries after his death. The common depiction with curly hair was most probably not what the historical Buddha looked like [2].
[2] https://talesoftimesforgotten.com/2020/05/15/what-did-the-bu...
> Most modern scholars believe he was most likely born sometime around 480 BC or thereabouts in Śākya Gaṇarājya, an oligarchic state in the northern Indian subcontinent and he most likely died sometime around 400 BC or thereabouts.
Siddhartha Gautama was born in present day Nepal, in the city of Kapilvastu in the Lumbini region. There are archaeological remains of the palace where he was born along with scriptures explicitly matching the origins and design.
The article also goes to great lengths to emphasize a lot of details are nebulous, however they are documented well since the Buddha was a royal prince. For that reason not sure where the idea that the depiction of Chinese Buddha should be accurate is insinuated either.
Strictly speaking Buddha was not a royal price but scion of an aristocratic family. As a comparison think of someone born in a patrician family of Rome when his father is a Consul of Rome. The Wikipedia article has good details about the Shakyas: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shakya
That is incorrect. Garam does indeed mean hot, but individual spices in garama masala don't need to be roasted, in fact I believe most, if not all, of them are not roasted, rather simply ground together.
The garam refers to the taseer (in Ayurvedic terms) of the spice blend, as in is it cooling (such as fennel is cooling), or is it warm (such as black pepper is warm/hot) to the body.
Almost all, if not all, of the ingredients of garam masala are warming to the body.
It still appears to be, ultimately, Indo-European and cognate with English 'warm', among others: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-Eur...
1. https://podcasts.apple.com/us/podcast/empire/id1639561921
What a lot of people imagine as separable cultures along borders were really cultural gradients or mixtures (this village here is mostly X, the villages north and south of here are Y, but the village even further south is also X, and we all speak each others’ language).
A lot of our discourse and views on culture are still poisoned by jingoistic nationalism from the 19th and 20th centuries (a cover for othering political foes and motivating the masses to fight and die for political goals), as well as concepts like imperialism and the couple centuries of European political hegemony, plus the elimination of non-prestige dialects/local languages and cultures via mass media.
It’s hard for us to imagine, but in a time before modern concepts of race/organized religion/nationalism the world was quite a dynamic cultural melting pot that wasn’t organized along these more recent distinctions. Greeks traded from Britain to India, pagan religions often saw other cultures’ pantheons as the same religion with different names and traditions, people noticed physical differences between groups of people but weren’t applying racist concepts to them. In a way, people of antiquity were often more tolerant and accepting than many contemporary people. But they could also just decide to kill and invade their neighbors with no pretext beyond wanting their stuff.
Some tasty bits:
Ancient Greece–Ancient India relations - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Greece%E2%80%93Ancient...
_Shape of Ancient Thought: Studies in Greek and Indian Philosophies_ by Thomas McEvilley - https://archive.org/details/shapeofancientthoughtstudiesingr...
Edit: if you want to help, consider funding a PhD student in Sanskrit. It’s about $8k per year, matched by government support. While a Sanskrit PhD it might seem like a route to poverty, a modern approach would be highly technical — ie, about image processing, AI etc.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Periplus_of_the_Erythraean_Sea
<Super Ignorant Take Ahead...> I remember being taught in American History class that Franklin, John Adams, and Thomas Jefferson studied and admired Native American systems of government when drafting the Constitution but my kids weren't taught this (though to be fair American History was removed as a separate subject and no longer covered in depth in their schooling). Most 'mericans would say it comes out of enlightened Europe when John Adams cited the Mohawks, who he argued enjoyed “complete individual independence,” while tribal leaders brought major decisions like declarations of war to “a national assembly.” and Thomas Jefferson said “the only condition on earth to be compared with ours is that of the Indians, where they still have less law than we. The Europeans are governments of kites over pidgeons [sic].”
To me it seems today Persian history is so artificially removed from Greek popular history, but when my son and I explored Alexander the Great's history it lead to us exploring Persian history and feeling the popular narrative was manipulated from the reality with so much missing connections.
I responded negatively to a previous post on here about 'Islamic Golden Age History' because it artificially divides us when huge portions of that golden age thought was coming from Christians and recently conquered lands only tangentially 'Islamic' and again popular history Pigeon holing and artificially separating us all.
'Islamic Golden Age' thought is also much Christian mindset thought (though not Germanic western European post Roman Christian thought which somehow becomes all Christian according to historians). Persia IS one of the progenitors of Western thought alongside Greece (Alexander the Great adopted much from Persia along with lots and lots of other cross pollination). But we sure aren't given that impression from popular history.
Now today I learned Indian spices were influential in Roman food. But I was taught Europeans didn't covet Indian spices until way later. Why? What use does that narrative have? Over eighty percent of the 478 recipes in the fifth century Roman cookbook of Apicius included pepper and that cookbook was widely known about since the 1800s apparently.
OK too many words, and hopefully I didn't offend with my Islamic Golden Age stuff. I'm not trying to lesson the Importance of the Islamic world, but expand it. I just hate that today we self isolate and apply that isolating viewpoint to the past when it doesn't appear to have been the case.
They also loved Chinese silk.
I'm kind of surprised you hadn't run into this yet. It seems like every Roman author is bemoaning the popular love of food drenched in pepper and transparent silk clothes. Try reading Juvenal, it's quite funny to see what he decries and what he considers normal.
Europeans never stopped importing spice, from ancient times to the present day. To my knowledge there was never a complete interruption.
No idea why this was taught, but it was untrue. However it is somewhat true that most Europeans couldn't afford many spices until the 1600s, in this is a case where being supply constrained probably kept a cap on demand too.
The rise of Venice in the medieval era was due in large part to their carefully constructed trade monopoly for spices.
> Medieval high society had an insatiable appetite for spiced sauces, sweets, wine, and ale... In Mairano’s era, Venetian traders in London sold a pound of pepper for a sum equivalent to a week’s work for an unskilled laborer.[1]
Venice had agreements with the Ottoman empire for access to spices coming via the Spice Road as well as the rulers of Egypt (sometimes also Ottoman) for spices coming via the Red Sea.
It's true that Portuguese and Spanish exploration was partially fueled by a desire to avoid the Venetian monopoly on spices though:
> Bad news came in 1501, however, when word reached Venetian merchants that the Portuguese navigator Vasco da Gama had sailed around Africa to India, bypassing the Mediterranean and—so it was feared—diverting the flow of pepper away from Venice.
But the demand was always there - it was supply that was constrained.
[1] https://harvardlawreview.org/print/vol-133/controller-confus...
Because spices were a major driver for European colonialism in Asia from the 1600s onwards (East India Company, VOC, etc), but they did not significantly influence British, Dutch, etc history before that.
Foreign Sailors on Socotra: The Inscriptions and Drawings from the Cave Hoq (a book mentioned in the article) refers to this as an “academic myth” and suggests that the island’s name is of South Arabian origin.
Past thalassocracies and syncretic empires just really challenge my default worldview.
I expect a few of you have got beyond beige goop with raisins in.