Note the "fueling" of "Nationalism", "committed" atrocities on the German side, while the French side only gets confronted by "wild rumors" and "accusations".
At that time Nationalism was a force for good throughout Europe demanding more egalitarian rights for citizens, democracy and separation of state powers, but also promoting independence of other nations as nationalists of one nation even travelled to other countries to support their Nationalists, for instance to Poland in support of their protests against Tsarist rule.
She leaves out this context, as well as that the French state (throughout being an ancien regime as well as being run by Napoleon) was waging multiple anti-German wars, basically treating the lands to its east like its Hinterland in need of Franconization (E.g. At the end of the 18th century just about 1% of the Elsassians spoke French, and even in 1953 80% of Elasassians were in favor of German speaking public schools).
She also seems to leave out the context, that Bismarck was an aristocrat and thus anything but a nationalist. And since she seems to be in need to see (or letting us see) the word nationalism in todays western liberal meaning, that whole differentiation seems inaccessible to her.
Germany "refrained from ethnic cleansing" (written as if this was some sort of novelty for Germans) because they considered the occupants German. The mild peace-conditions were given by Germany because Bismarck knew that anything else would foster even more French resentment then there already was („Toujours y penser, jamais en parler"), which would then foster more German nationalism, which in turn would hurt his Juncker-Class.
I'm a bit lost. How does this relate to the rest of the comment?
I’m genuinely curious, I’m not intentionally obtuse and I’m not implying anything.
Nevertheless, it is true that Prussian imperialism ultimately was a disaster for Germany. I'm not sure how that relates to a "French side", unless you also want to say that there was an "Austrian side", a "Polish side", a "Danish side", etc.
> At that time Nationalism was a force for good throughout Europe demanding more egalitarian rights for citizens
That aspect of nationalism was dead since 1848 in Germany, in no small part due to Prussia. In fact, the 2nd reich was illiberal, with a parliament which was mostly powerless.
> She leaves out this context, as well as that the French state [...]
The book is about 1870. France had been mostly powerless and diplomatically isolated since 1815. But yeah, nice irredentist propaganda.
As long as Germany had a competent leader, they could engage in smart offensive moves and improve its standing. And they could have continued doing so.
The problem was strategic leadership fell into the hands of idiots and they backed the Austrians without a clear strategy beyond 'our armies smash'.
> In fact, the 2nd reich was illiberal, with a parliament which was mostly powerless.
Not really. Bismark had to spend huge amount of effort on managing the parliament. And they were constantly pushing into things and increasing their own power.
Even during WW1 the importance of the parliament is underestimated.
Adam Tooze has some good research on that.
Germany backing Austria-Hungary against Russia dates back to the Berlin conference, and back then, it was still Bismarck at the helm.
These kinds of causality creations usually only work if you - like i said - leave out details, which is the moment when someone leaves the historical factual and enters the creation of histography, something that has always flourished around the french revolution.
By this logic we get a clear causality by which Napoleon gave us Hitler.
/s
There is a tendency to paint one beligerent of any given war as evil and the other(s) as good. That didn't even work for WW1, it does for WW2, the evil side clearly is the axis. When looking closer so, no side in WW2 was truely good. On the allied side there was Stalins USSR, bombing of civilians and the like. On the Axis nothing to defend so, especially the Germans started a world war with a planned and intentional mass tenocide at its core fornno other reason than murdering all jews in Europe.
1870, and in 1914, things were different. War was still an accepted way of conducting state business. And those used to be way less devastating than WW1 turned out to be.
The axis powers were the aggressors invading their neighbours, that in itself is hugely significant - there's a massive difference between being a french soldier (fighting to stop an invader) and being a german one.
On top of that, the axis powers committed huge atrocities in places like Belgium - murdering entire villages and so on. I genuinely don't understand this "moral relativist" outlook that has been applied since - it is pretty clear to me that the axis side were the evil ones, being both the aggressors and committing the major atrocities of the war.
What allowed WW1 to happen, among a lot of other reasons, was Wilhelm II's dismanzling of Bismarks alliances and treaties.
Also true, despite giving Prussia its first social insurance system, Bismarck was an aristocrate through and through, and by no means a democrat.
But drawing a direct line from Bismarck, to the war of 1870, ober WW1 to WW2 goes to far. Heck, that lone is already sketchy if one tries to link the Nazis directly to WW1, going even further back is somewhat misleading.
Edit: To emphasize, my comment is related to the article, explicitly not the book discussed in said article which I didn't read. Overall, I like it when wars are looked at and analyzed from different perspectives than battles and the like. So, I think the book authors approach of covering those aspects, and she does have some body of work for that on tha war of 1870, is a very interesting and important one.
That's a commonly held view, but Bismark is partly responsible for the inability of Germany to win WW1. He was the one that set up pre-WW1's alliances, and especially, he was the one that alienated Russia with duplicitous diplomacy. That policy, which culminated at the Berlin conference is, ultimately, the thing that allowed France to break from its diplomatic isolation.
Robert Massie's book "Dreadnought" does a thorough and impressive job of explaining the long background to the tragedy of WW1.
And France getting out of isolation was actually a good thing, or at least not a bad one. Or was France, after 1870, on the attacking side of any war? It wasn't. it wasn't even involved in a lot of wars not forced upon it by others until the futile attempts to hold on to the colonies post WW2.
And no, Bismarck did not set-up the pre-WW1 alliances, the alliances in place leading up to WW2 were not designed by Bismarck. Those alliances were the result of Wilhelm 2's actions in dissolving the rather ambiguous Bismarck system, which led to the building of the Prusso-German-Austrian block on one side and the British-French-Russian one on the other. Exactly what Bismarck wanted to avoid, and did as long as he had a say.
EDIT: Prussia, and Germany general, was only able to win quick wars. Everything else required allies, and that fact was already by Frederick the Great and driven home clearly by the Napoleonic wars. The reasons are, in a nutshell, the fact any prolonged war will inevitably be a two front one. That Prussia didn't have the necessary resources for a prolonged war. And that without secured access to the sea, any colonies Prussia / Germany had were basically useless. And that access was a non-started as soon as the Royal navy, or even the French one later, got involved. So in the end, either Prussia / Germany won quick and decisively, or it was outgunned, outnumbered and outresourced on two fronts. Bismarck had nothing to do with that, that is caused by geography.
And history showed us the Germany was well able to win on one front: The Eastern one in WW1 and the Western one, initially, in WW2. Throw in a second one, and the war is lost. Or rather not winning quickly on the second one, and the war is lost (as shown by Barbarossa's failure to defeat the USSR at Moscow, and even then it is doubtful the USSR would just have rolled over). Funny side effect of that: the German armed forces, and as an extent, but to a lesser degree, German industry suck at logistics and supply chain management to this very day.
> the Germans won because they were more effectively organised, better trained and mobilised more men than the French.
That sounds like a non-military opinion. Most of the battles in that war were "battles of encounter," where some units just happened to fight, and then the local commanders escalated it. The Germans always devolved more power to their commanders to act based on local conditions, while the French had a sluggish, top-down organization. John Keegan in Six Armies in Normandy calls that art operativ, as the Germans put it.
The Germans also had better artillery.
It certainly did lead directly to WW I, though.
It’s interesting that the Napoleonic wars include a similar running theme, but with the shoe on the other foot: fast-moving, aggressive French organized into independent corps vs staid, conservative Austrians and Prussians.
Very true; Napoleon was quick.
(At least, this was deemed an important factor in French post-analysis. – "The Culture of Defeat", orig. "Die Kultur der Niederlage", by Wolfgang Schivelbusch has a great chapter on this.)
Yes the Ems Dispatch was editorialised - but at that point France had already decided they would declare war if Prussia didn't agree to their demands.
I'm not entirely sure what other options Prussia had at this point, accept to humiliate themselves further by accepting all French demands (that no Hohenzollern would ever be permitted to be a candidate on the Spanish throne for the rest of time).
But the war did solidify or make official many important features of 20th century Europe. Namely, Germany as a unified whole with a German speaking core that defines its contemporary borders, the centralization of the rivalry between France and Germany, Germany as the dominant military and economic power of Europe, the stabilization of French Republicanism sans monarchy, the relative irrelevance of the Austrians, the end of a common belief in great power stabilization as a long term objective in favor of a more manichean struggle for dominance, etc.
The revisionism that somehow Bismarck tricked France into war with the Ems Dispatch comes from people trying to backport Hitlerism 60 years into the past.
Second, was what about what German unification did to what we call "The Balance of Powers". "The Balance of Powers" is a concept that things are good when there are several European powers who have relatively balanced economic and military powers. But that things get very bad when one power becomes dominant and seeks to annihilate or mortally wound its counterparts. It was a concept favored by the high born, elite educated aristocrats who made up the ministers in Europe's Empiral bureaucracies. To this view, things which might disturb his balance are bad and things which maintain the balance are good.
For over a century, the unification of Germany had been one of those "bad" things which might come to pass. It loomed as a boogieman over the old European, "Balance of Powers". Independently, the German speaking states of Northern Europe had become the most economically developed parts of the continent. There was a feeling that if they joined together, their economic power and as a consequence, their military power would eclipse all of Europe. And this was not just the feeling of the French. The Russians were concerned about this question. And the Austrians too. They had the most complicated situation of all because many of the German states had been part of The Holy Roman Empire which had Austria had dominated. As the German states rose, many Austrian aristocrats benefited but they also understood this rise as a threat. Thus they had worked against German unification for decades.
I think the French figured that smashing an infant German state before it had time to develop cohesion was there best chance to avoid German domination. This of course was a blunder. The war pushed Southern German States into unification and created the popular basis for a cohesive German nation.
Now, regarding the infamous "insult" which was the French excuse for war. The insult itself is not really important. The French and Germans both were eager for the war. France for the reasons stated above, Germany for the reason that they figured it would bring the South German states into their union. The French were looking for a reason and Bismarck with his publication of the Ems Dispatch obliged them. In the end, it could've been almost anything.
As a foot note, there is a ton of debate about whether "The Balance of Powers" was really the product of the magnanimous wisdom of conservative ministers or whether it was just an inescapable reality which they accepted, it being simply too hard to project power at the scale necessary to dominate all of Europe at this time. Regardless of its root intention, "The Balance of Power" is something we see at work in European politics. The treaties that ended European wars from the thirty years war until the Franco-Prussiian war were rarely very punitive. Usually they attempt to give the victor some kind of upper hand but they don't usually involve measures that another power might feel they truly cannot accept. They indeed often look as though they are trying to create some kind of stable peace.
This.
But then Germany's Kaiser Wilhelm I got old and died, and was soon succeeded by his grandson, Wilhelm II - who didn't like Bismark's cautious foreign policy. Wilhelm II wanted vigorous & rapid expansion, to enlarge Germany's (and his) place in the sun. Bismark, who was getting a bit old & unsteady himself, was replaced in 1890 with a new German Chancellor, more to the young Kaiser's liking.
Note that both WWI and WWII stuck Germany in large, long, two-front European wars. And that Germany got into WWI under the same Kaiser (Wilhelm II) who had dumped Bismark for being too cautious and anti-war.
Otto von Bismarck was very adept at putting together treaties and alliances to hold things at bay or in stasis until Prussia could benefit. Bismarck understood to have limited objectives--Bismarck had a plan--Bismarck always had a plan.
"Twisted History--Otto von Bismarck" https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zc3Y-dU_GjM&list=PLhyKYa0YJ_...
Wilhelm II, alas, was an idiot. Anything with subtlety was doomed.
To be fair, it wasn't clear that even Bismarck could have kept all the plates spinning indefinitely. And Bismarck was getting old.
Wilhelm's obsession with a massive fleet to compete with England lost any hopes of forming an alliance with them and resulted in Germany being seen as a threat. Having a large fleet puts you at odds against England no matter what - that is their last line of defense. It's interesting to think what might have happened had Germany abandoned any aims on a massive navy and focused all those resources on it's army instead. My hunch is no mis-alignement with England and a very different looking world today if that happened.
By the time WWI rolled around, German veterans still in service were almost exclusively veterans of colonial wars. However, just about everybody from the Kaiser and central command down to the rank and file believed that a war against other Europeans would (and should) be fought differently from those colonial wars. Thus, the military philosophy that they thought won the Franco-Prussian war was brought to the present with very little modification, but enacted by people who had never actually seen its use.
This still happens today, too. Look at the volume of tanks that NATO countries shipped to Iraq and Afghanistan. What tank losses occurred were predominantly from infantry, because there were simply no enemy tanks available to engage.
"Fighting the last war" has been another way I've heard it referred to. It is why, for instance, I didn't agree with the US DoD curtailing the F-22 purchase plans in favor of more counter-insurgency focused efforts.
As to tanks in Iraq/Afghanistan, lets not get tricked into thinking they were useless because there were no tanks for them to fight. They proved supremely useful as mobile pillboxes or observation posts, that could sit somewhere and use their sensor suites that were far and away better than the binoculars or nvg's a solider could put to their face.
> Believing that unification had come about as a result of military competence
It did.
> they mapped the future of the German Empire in terms of military power.
All empires are created in terms of military power. In what terms was the german empire supposed to compete against the british, french, russian, american, japanese, etc empires? The statement cannot be dumb because it's devoid of substance. It's literally a meaningless statement.
> Thus, Chrastil concludes, German victory in 1871 became catastrophic not just for Germany but ultimately for the rest of the world.
How was it 'catastrophic' as without it, germany wouldn't have existed? Also, 'rest of the world'? Germany's rise and germany's role in ww1/ww2 primarily affected germany's neighbors. Just because it was catastrophic for parts of europe doesn't mean it was catastrophic for everyone else. It's the same nonsense like 'the world is against russia' when most of the world is on russia's side or neutral. Like they all read from the same propaganda manual.
And it likely would’ve meant no WW1
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yF4INCn-sew
Its by amazing German Historian Adam Tooze on the 150th year of German Unification.
It goes into a lot of detail and I learned a lot.