For (a simplified) example, if there’s a 30% tariff on a $100 item, all else equal, the price is now $130, and the customer that originally would have paid $100 is now paying $130.
But what can — and I’ve experienced firsthand — happen, is that the US retailer will eat some/all of the tariff in order to not lose the customers business (or even just out of goodwill).
Also, the foreign supplier can do the same thing. Rather than lose the business of the US retailer, they may, in turn, eat some/all of the tariff.
I’ve seen both of these happen with products I’ve purchased over the past few months.
I’m not saying this happens a lot, but I don’t know that it doesn’t, either.
I’m just saying that it’s not as clear cut as the definition.