I'm a little surprised, however, to see him here proselytizing for a particular side in the constructivism debate. I associate him more with what he has described as a "quasi empirical" approach to mathematics[0] where the adoption of new axioms (such as for example the axiom of choice) is justified by their resulting in new, interesting mathematics.
But here, it seems his goal is to arrive at a somewhat Platonic conclusion, that either the reals are valid numbers or (seemingly he prefers) not.
My lay and naive take would be: if you adopt these rules (this Formal Axiomatic System) then you can have Big Fun in the playground of ever more esoteric and complex infinite cardinals, or if you adopt this other FAS you get to discover which results can and can't be obtained under a strict constructivist regime, and whichever FAS you choose it's just the same process of choosing axioms and applying valid deductive steps to arrive at a result you find interesting, with no more "existence" implied than the thoroughly non-Platonic existence of a solution to a problem, which can be demonstrated by solving it: if you take such-and-such steps then such-and-such result will follow.
I suppose the point being made is that avoiding axioms which imply the "existence" of the reals is more useful for doing physics, but that seems non-obvious in a field which for the last 200 years has seemingly sought to progressively make more and more phenomena intelligible by means of differential equations from infinitesimal calculus!
0: see, for example: https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0303352, 1.9 Is Mathematics Quasi-Empirical
> Why should we believe in real numbers, if most of them, it turns out,[^15] are maximally unknowable like Ω? [^16]
The footnotes:
> [^15]: See the chapter entitled The Labyrinth of the Continuum in [Chaitin, 2005]
> [^16]: In spite of the fact that most individual real numbers will forever escape us, the notion of an arbitrary real has beautiful mathematical properties and is a concept that helps us to organize and understand the real world. Individual concepts in a theory do not need to have concrete meaning on their own; it is enough if the theory as a whole can be compared with the results of experiments.
---
The reference [Chaitin, 2005] in footnote 15 links to..
Meta Math! The Quest for Omega - http://arxiv.org/abs/math/0404335
> This book presents a personal account of the mathematics and metamathematics of the 20th century leading up to the discovery of the halting probability Omega. The emphasis is on history of ideas and philosophical implications.
Irreducible Complexity in Pure Mathematics - http://arxiv.org/abs/math/0411091
> By using ideas on complexity and randomness originally suggested by the mathematician-philosopher Gottfried Leibniz in 1686, the modern theory of algorithmic information is able to show that there can never be a "theory of everything" for all of mathematics.
¯\_(ツ)_/¯ For some reason I get the same vibe from this as people referring to LLM inference using gendered pronouns instead of "it".
Can this be true? DNA is the information system of living creatures and as far as I know, it is not coded with 0s and 1s. So, how can we justify that "the world is built entirely out of digital information"?
I view "real" numbers, in the context of uncomputable, unnameable numbers, to be as unfortunately named as "imaginary" numbers.
They're worse. Just having another dimension is significantly more relevant to reality.
And the reals also ruin the word "normal".
The mean value theorem isn't true for the computable reals, differentiation of computable function isn't always computable, sequences tend to behave poorly, etc. There's still a lot you can say: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computable_analysis but in general calculus doesn't care about computability, that's a human problem.
If any are a "randomly" chosen real number, the answer would almost certainly be no. But a test of sufficient precision would of course be impossible.
This isn't fair for what quantization means in reality, but I'm just pointing out that you don't have to introduce the real numbers to get physically meaningless quantities.
How real are real numbers? (2004) - https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=24029791 - Aug 2020 (112 comments)
How real are real numbers? (2004) - https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=14080024 - April 2017 (265 comments)
One of his mantras is Time is real; Real numbers are not. He conceives of real numbers resulting from processes (approximations, relaxations, computable calculations) that unfold over time. So there is a Heisenbergish uncertainty principle of observable precision and elapsed time.
Selected papers:
Indeterminism in Physics, Classical Chaos and Bohmian Mechanics. Are Real Numbers Really Real?
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1803.06824
Real Numbers are the Hidden Variables of Classical Mechanics
https://philarchive.org/rec/GISRNA
Time Really Passes, Science Can’t Deny That
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1602.01497v1
Popular articles:
Real numbers don’t cut it in the real world, this physicist argues
https://www.sciencenews.org/article/real-numbers-physics-fre...
But when we say things like "the rationals are discrete" or "the computable numbers are discrete" these are very specific claims in the domain of measure theory, a theory which yields almost nothing of value except endless paradoxes and naval-gazing nonsense. Similarly when people say "the rationals are countable" and "the computable numbers are countable" this is taking for granted the Cantor notion of measuring cardinality by bijective correspondence, once again, a theory that yields nothing of value except endless paradoxes and naval-gazing nonsense.
In the practical sense the rational numbers are quite continuous -- between any two rational numbers there are an infinite (unbounded) number of rational numbers -- there's no notion of a "leap" the way there is with the integers. And any useful number can be approximated arbitrarily closely by rationals.
And for computable numbers there's even less of a gap. With rationals you can only approximate. But you can have a computable number that is exactly equal to the square root of 2, because a computable number is the algorithm by which you form arbitrarily close approximations. The square of that computable number is itself computable and is exactly equal to 2.
What do "real" numbers buy you? That is, what do you get for the trouble of building your formalism around numbers that are not computable? Basically nothing.
And if you're worried that sticking to the rationals and the computable numbers is too much of a concession to "physical reality", rest assured -- the rationals are just as unphysical as the real numbers because they are continuous already, and physics does not give us the power to measure the difference between two sufficiently precise rational numbers just as it barfs when you throw "real" numbers at it.
I guess the naive answer is completeness. Every Cauchy sequence converges to a member of the space. For example, quantum mechanics relies on the formalism of Hilbert space, defined as a complete inner product space. This gives us nice things like the spectral theorem for unbounded operators, without which we wouldn't be able to define probability (the Born rule) or time evolution (the operator exponential e^-iHt).
Can you formalize quantum mechanics using computable numbers? I don't actually know, but let's say yes. I assume it's more work with more edge cases, so I would ask the same question: what do you get for the trouble of building a formalism around computable numbers?
They're well-known and have a simpler implementation, and we are familiar with their quirks. There is a giant body of useful knowledge built up around standard real analysis. That doesn't really exist if you insist on using only computable numbers.
The computables are also more fiddly in many ways. Because equality is undecidable, you can't have discontinuous functions, you need to carry around error epsilons all over the place, and we lose useful tools like the Heine-Borel theorem, I think.
Try proving some results in PDE theory, and I think you might change your mind.
In general, I find clarity in thinking of numbers as the system that implements them, rather than as platonic objects with individual reality. What does using Old Boring tech buy you over using Shiny New Thing?
It buys you the rigor of doing calculus, which buys you a lot of results that, while could be computed without calculus, would also be very difficult without it.
They're a powerful abstraction - the base concept of a smooth continuous complete domain which encodes non-trivial relationships, and is a prototype for other analytic abstractions.
The reals are the philosophical base class for some very useful mathematical objects. Computability and physicality are both side issues.
> But when we say things like "the rationals are discrete"
In the usual topology they are not?
> In the practical sense the rational numbers are quite continuous -- between any two rational numbers there are an infinite (unbounded) number of rational numbers -- there's no notion of a "leap" the way there is with the integers.
This characterization captures neither the intuitive nor the formal definition of continuity. You are effectively saying that Q is dense in R, but this is insufficient to prove, for example, the intermediate value theorem.
> measure theory, a theory which yields almost nothing of value except endless paradoxes
Come on now. The usual definition of concepts as basic as areas is tethered to measure theory. We say it's "obvious" that the integral is the area under the curve (and it is: e.g. the Riemann integral is trivially the Peano-Jordan measure) but this only works because we're appealing to it. You can route around it, but let's not pretend we're doing it for no reason.
I can see the elegance of a purely intuitionistic construction, but the "usual" real numbers are much closer to how we intuitively (no pun intended) work with numbers.
Approximate relative to what? All actual measurement is implicitly or explicitly approximate such as L = x meters +/- epsilon. There is no infinite precision by which to discount rational measures as "approximate" and thus "invalid" in any way.
>What do "real" numbers buy you? That is, what do you get for the trouble of building your formalism around numbers that are not computable? Basically nothing.
You "buy" all of mathematics which operates on the assumption of "infinite" precision. It is an abstraction necessary to prove theorems and relationships of math. Abstracting from precision isn't a denial that it exists, it is the assumption that I can ignore it or leave it undefined. This is the assumption that distinguishes math from physics/engineering. Mathematicians deal with abstract e or pi but in the real world pi=3.14 if you are tiling your patio and 3.14159265... or whatever is necessary to get to the moon.
Measure theory is used for lots of practical things, for example probability theory.
You may enjoy a recent update on that story [0] that maybe avoids a few paradoxes and looks at things other than navels.
No numbers are real. They are all an entirely abstract construction, like lines and planes and open sets and closed balls and metric spaces and everything else.
If I construct a number by saying it’s the limit of the sequence sqrt(2)-1/n as n->infinity that’s just as real as the number 1 or 1/2.
It just seems really arbitrary to privilege one kind of construction over another. We want a complete ordered field, so we built the reals. Saying they don’t exist or they aren’t real or whatever seems just to be completely beside the point. They are real enough to do the thing we want them to do.
They are just as real as anything else in maths.
Does it exist if it is impossible to show an example? Only if "exist" is interpreted to mean "you cannot deduce a contradiction from assuming them", which is a logically consistent position. But if you mean "they are in some sense actually there", in some describable way, then it's muddier. And you can build a logically consistent position from declaring "they are not there" as well. Precisely because no counterexample can be produced.
And then there's ultrafinitists, and yeah, they are a bit bonkers.
Here's a great discussion on Curt Jaimungal's podcast:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l7LvgvunVCM
And a good debate on the topic with Daniel Rubin, who takes the more orthodox position:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=edh5bbgSKqo
Wildberger has tons more on this topic on his own channel. His arguments are thought-provoking, even if you don't agree with them.
Nicolas Gisin: Time, Superdeterminism, & Quantum Gravity
Interesting, I think everyone else calls this Kolmogorov complexity.
Or sometimes as real as you can fathom :)
Since Lean has become more popular as a proving system I've stumbled upon one very annoying feature of reals: they are not computably comparable. The system says you can never know whether two arbitrary real numbers are the same because you don't have enough time to compare them.