As a non-mathematician this is a wonderfully evocative summary. I'm curious if mathematicians find it a reasonable characterization of the proof.
For example, take quantum decoherence (which, IMHO, is the most logical explanation for the collapse of the wave-function - by saying it does not actually collapse). Quantum decoherence is almost like a giant constraint resolution system - once a particle randomly interacts with another they become entangled and both now have fewer degrees of freedom. When it interacts with many particles, like any macro-effect it has essentially no degrees of freedom anymore. It's all about who knew about what and when. The experiments around this fascinating. (Note that there are other theories, like the many-worlds interpretation, that also explain the collapse of the wave function)
This seems to be another example of this. Anyway, as I said, just a layman.
In the same circumstances a light beam stops producing an interference pattern in the Young experiment, quantum wave functions do as well. This is pretty easy to derive, just introduce a random phase shift term, and average across it, and the interference pattern disappears and a bell curve emerges instead.
A state is entangled when it isn’t a product state.
Two spin (1/2) particles in a singlet state have the kind of “they have opposite states” thing going on that you describe, and is a specific way that two particles can be entangled.
A state like (01 + 10) is not separable, so by definition it's an entangled state. "Separability" is a straightforward algebraic fact that follows from the definition of a vector and the tensor product. You can see what this means in the following Google answer
https://share.google/aimode/13jNpR7bmpPMo1pn3
(01 + 10) means that if I measure the first particle and get 0, then the second particle is now in the state 1. If I measure the first particle and get 1, then the second particle is now in the state 0.
The state sqrt(1/2) ( |00> + |11> ) is also possible, and is also an entangled state, but doesn’t have the two particles in opposite states.
By contrast, the state (1/2) (|00> - |01> + |10> - |11>) is (while a valid state) not an entangled state, because it is equal to (1/2) (|0> + |1>) (|0> - |1>) .
This could have just been a lucky guess, but I feel like the way they presented it my intuition understood what was happening though I can't mentally see/grok it. I think making music and messing with waveforms in synths also helps to understand this intuitively more than the actual math.
I would like to credit "The Theory of Almost Everything" by Robert Oerter for explaining it in a way I could understand 15 years ago https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/183207.The_Theory_of_Alm...
Great book with the history and explanation of a lot of quantum stuff, without being huge like Brian Greene's books (which I also love).
damping function
, and it needs to be perfectly tailor-made to work. “This is a challenging thing to construct,” Cohen said. But he knew that if he could do it in higher dimensions, he could unlock the entire proof."
Brilliant, absolutely brilliant!