Consider what an instant of time is. Is it a non-zero chunk of time smaller than any other finite chunk of time? In this case, we are defining an instant as an infinitesimal chunk of time. If we posit that such a thing exists, then why can't an infinitesimal distance (which the arrow travels in that time) exist?
The other option is to define an instant of time as no time at all. Not the smallest, simply zero. Saying that since you cannot move a non-zero distance in zero time is valid. However, a chunk of time is not composed of an infinite series of zero time chunks, just like 0.00000...1 is not equal to 0 + 0 + 0... There is a gap between zero and infinitesimal that cannot be bridged by zeros alone.
Here's how I think of Zeno's paradox: it is saying that if time/space are continuous then there are no such things as finite chunks of them, therefore they must be discrete.
http://www.askamathematician.com/2012/03/q-is-the-quantum-ze...
None of those things are true. One minute isn't equal to four minutes, Zeno didn't prove anything about time and space being neither continuous nor discrete, and things clearly do move.
http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/47252/simple-expl...
We have gaps in reality, the planck length, planck time etc.
Also, we have Gödel's incompleteness theorems, which tells us about the gaps in theories we can't fill.
"There is currently no directly proven physical significance of the Planck length; it is, however, a topic of research."
That's mathematical, not physical, so that would mean that in the parent universe somehow _something else constitutes a formal language_, which requires changing what it means to be a subset, which requires changing set theory. So if GITs are invalid in the parent universe, it means, roughly either that you can compare something to itself, and find that it contains different things that itself (absurd), or that list comprehensions are logically impossible (not as obviously absurd, but still "whaaa?").
> ... Check on it after three seconds, and it probably will have decayed. But, Misra and Sudarshan argue, check on it three times in one second intervals, and it will most likely not have decayed. ...
Let's invent numbers for an example, with 3->5. It you check a system after 5 seconds the probability that it has not yet decayed "is" 1-0.05 . It you check a system five times in the 5 seconds interval the probability that it has not yet decayed "is" (1-0.002)^5=~1-0.01 . The measurements makes the decay probability smaller, but it's not reduced to 0 as the article try to induce, to make it similar to the Zeno paradox.
The important point is that at the quantum level every measurement changes the system [1]. So the result of the experiment is affected by the measurements. (At the classical level, some measurements are negligible, and it's safe to ignore them.)
[1] of an operator that doesn't commute with the Hamiltonian of the system
I don't follow. Why can't the arrow be in both places at the same time? With the probability of one vs the other dependent on the velocity and the size of the time slice.
His description of the arrow's motion, or the runner's traveling half the distance to the finish line, and then half the remaining distance, and then half the distance left after that, and so on, and thus never actually finishing, are exactly that: descriptive, not prescriptive.
Sometimes it seems to me that every day words become mere metaphors when applied to physics.
This is a pretty reasonable use of the term, as when most people observe anything it's typically by capturing photons that previously bounced off it.
If space and time is discrete, and movement is deterministic - Zeno paradox is a paradox - object moving at speed 1 minimal division of space (MDS) per 2 minimal divisions of time (MDT) isn't at any valid point of space after 1 minimal division of time which is paradoxical.
Calculus solved this, but it has assumption that space and time is continuous.
Now we have experiments that shows us it's not true, so probably the assumption about determinism isn't true. So for example object moving 1 MDS per 2 MDT "really" moves 1 MDT per 1 MDT with probability 0.5.
Am I getting this right?
This makes me uneasy - I feel like there is a violation of thermodynamic laws in there somewhere. Decay is not the only thing that is probabilistic, tunneling is too, and if you can manipulate things so it's more like to go in one direction vs the other, you can reverse entropy.
Are we becoming so puritanical we can't even admit that a male person is attracted to a "naked beautiful woman"?
The important difference between this and Zeno paradox is - in Zeno paradox time is also divided.